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NMC GENERAL PAPER MAY 2018 PAST QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
NMC GENERAL PAPER MAY 2018
NMC GENERAL PAPER MAY 2018 PAST QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
1. Obtaining informed consent is the responsibility of the……?
A. Nurse
B. Nurse assistant
C. Physician
D.Nurse-in-charge
2. Badasu complained to the nurse manager that she had been given an injection without consent. Which offence would the nurse be charged with?
A. Technical assault
B. Malfeasance
C. Hypochondriasis
D.Somatization order
3. Mrs, Ntow has been very tensed, restless and preoccupied all day. Which of the following activities would you prescribe for her?
A. Going for a walk with the nurse
B. Participating in a quiz
C. Playing a board game
D.Reading a book
4. Some aggressive incidents may be prevented by the nurses who have a sound knowledge of the individual patient. This is because the nurse will…..?
A. Be able to report objectively about the patient after any violent episode
B. Be able to anticipate many situations that may threaten violence
C. Obsessive compulsive personality disorder
D. Knows the patient’s weakness
5. Select from the list below clinical features that are commonly found in dementia.
A. Amnesia and confabulation
B. Confabulation
C. retardation and amnesia
D.Verbigeration
6. Informed consent is a method that promotes?
A. Autonomy
B. Beneficence
C. Justice
D.Non malfeasance
7. Which one of this behavioural modification is used to produce deterrent to drinking of alcohol in an alcoholic?
A. Antabuse
B. Hypnosis
C. Relaxation technique
D.Systematic desensitization
8. A fail to settle her hospital bill and is not allowed to go home by the nurse on duty. Which legal offences will she be charged with?
A. Tort
B. Misdemeanor
C. Invasion of privacy
D. False imprisonment
9. Ethical principles for professional nursing practice in a clinical setting are guided by the principles of conduct that are written as the:
A. Good Samaritan laws for civil guidelines
B. Ghana Registered Nurses and Midwives Association Act
C. Nursing and Midwifery Council Code of Ethics
D. Standards of Care from experts in practice
10. A retired nurse stops to help in an emergency at the scene of an accident. If the injured party files suit the nurse would probably be covered by …….?
A. Her automobile insurance
B. Her home owner’s insurance
C. National Care Act
D. The Good Samaritan Law
11. The tendency of a demented patient leaving his/her home unnoticed to a familiar place and could not recall land mark features to trace his/her way home is known as…………
A. Anterograde amnesia
B. Dissociative amnesia
C. Visuol spatial orientation
D. Wandering
12. An expression of “doctor shopping” is a characteristic behavior of clients with the diagnosis of:
A. Body dysmorphic disorder
B. Conversion disorder
C. Hypochondriasis
D.Post-traumatic stress disorder
13. This treatment involves killing cancer cells by freezing them with liquid nitrogen.
A. Cryosurgery
B. Pyeyosurgery
C. Oesteosurgery
D. Enchondroma
14. A condition in which the spine in the upper back has an excessive curvature is called?
A. Bowleg
B. Spine deformity
C. Bone waxing
D. Kyphosis
15. A chronic bone disorder that typically results in enlarged, deformed bones due to excessive breakdown and formation of bone tissue that can cause bones to weaken and may result in bone pain, arthritis, deformities or fractures is ?
A. Paget disease
B. Bone disorder
C. Kyphosis
D. Verome
16. A condition where there is an increased inner curvature of the spine just above the buttocks is?
A. Paget disease
B. Bone disorder
C. Kyphosis
D. Lordosis
17. Which of the following is NOT a cause of osteomyelitis?
A. Penetrating wound to bones
B. Fractures (compound)
C. Dermatitis of the bones
D. Diseases such as sickle cell
18. Which of the following is the surgical management of osteomyelitis?
A. Sequestrectomy (removal of the dead bone)
B. Bone degenerative surgery
C. Open reduction
D. Debridement of wounds
19. The reduction of total bone mass with high rate of bone resorption greater than bone formation is….?
A. Osteoporosis
B. Menopause
C. Osteomyelitis
D. Bone decay
20. A condition in which the bone becomes brittle, porous, fragile and lighter is……?
A. Osteoporosis
B. Menopause
C. Osteomyelitis
D. Bone resorption
NMC GENERAL PAPER MAY 2018 PAST QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
21. The metabolic bone disease characterized by bone demineralization is….?
A. Paget disease
B. Osteomalacia
C. Kyphosis
D. Lordosis
22. A ……………is a narrowing in any part of the urethra where there is impairment of normal urine flow.
A. Bladder blockade
B. Narrowed vessels
C. Urethral stricture
D. Ureter stones
23. Nasal traumas/fractures can occur as a result of any of the following except?
A. In contact sports & fights
B. Depressed or deviated Nasal Bone
C. Nonaccidental fretting
D. Simple or Compound of the nose
24. Which of the equipment below is NOT required for the removal of foreign bodies in the ear?
A. Otoscope with removable lens
B. Sponge holding otoscope
C. Bayonet forceps
D. Alligator forceps
25. Trachoma is caused by the bacterium called…?
A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Herpes zoster virus
C. Henisorus americanus
D. Syphilis
26. The process of stone formation in urinary system is called….?
A. Nephrolithiasis or urolithiasis
B. Ectopic stones
C. Renal tissue emolization
D. Uterocalculi
27. Acute hemorrhage from the nostril, nasal cavity, or nasopharynx could be due to the following except…?
A. Trauma to the head/face
B. Non vigorous nose blowing
C. Nasal defects (deflected)
D. Hypertension
28. In anterior epistaxis there is
A. Echymosis
B. Oedema
C. Renal blood loss
D. Blood is bright red
29. All the following are features of bulimia nervosa EXCEPT
A. Intense fear of obesity
B. Distortion of body image
C. A known physical illness is present
D. Amenorrhoea
30. What is considered to be the most important cause of anorexia nervosa?
A. Adolescent adjustment difficulties
B. Early weaning from breast /bottle
C. Simple phobia
D. Endocrine disorders
31. To be effective in meeting various ethnic needs the nurse should:
A. Act as if he or she is comfortable with the client’s behaviour
B. Avoid asking questions about the client’s cultural background
C. Be aware of client’s cultural differences
D. Treat all clients alike
32. Kofi angrily accuses you of trying to poison him when you offer him his medication. This is…?
A. Displacement
B. Rationalization
C. Sublimation
D. Projection
33. Which of the following activities would you consider most helpful to the schizophrenics?
A. Attending a social dance and playing monopoly
B. Going for a walk and needle work
C. Needle work and reading a magazine
D. Reading magazine and Attending a social dance
34. When signing a form as a witness, your signature shows that the client:
A. Is fully informed and is aware of all consequences
B. Was awake and fully alert and not medicated with narcotics
C. Was free to sign without pressure and understands the language of the form
D. All of the above
35. Which statement about an institutional ethics committee is correct?
A. The ethics committee is an additional resource for clients and health care professionals
B. The ethics committee relieves health care professionals from dealing with ethical issues
C. The ethics committee would be the first option in addressing an ethical dilemma
D. The ethics committee replaces decision making by the client and health care providers
36. The philosophy sometimes called the code of ethics of care suggests that ethical dilemmas can best be solved by attention to
A. Relationships
B. The client
C. The code of ethics
D. The faith
37. The nurse puts a restraint jacket on a client without the client’s permission and without the physician’s order. The nurse may be guilty of assault.
A. True
B. False
C. Vilification
D. Don’t know
38. The failure of the nurse to question the physician about an order creates an area of ——- because this is
A. Liability on the doctor’s part
B. Liability on the nurse’s part
C. Liability on the hospital administrator’s part
D. Liability on the client’s part
39. The nurse is obligated to follow a physician’s order unless:
A. The order is a verbal order
B. The order is illegible
C. The order has not been transcribed
D. The order is an error, violates hospital policy, or would be detrimental to the client
40. The following are crucial needs of the dying client EXCEPT….
A. Financial resources
B. Control of pain
C. Preservation of dignity
D. Self-worth, love and belonging
41. What are the stages of dying according to Elizabeth Kubler-Ross?
A. Numbing; yearning and searching; disorganization and despair; and reorganization.
B. Accepting the reality of loss, working through the pain of grief, adjusting to the environment without the deceased, and emotionally relocating the deceased and moving on with life.
C. Anticipatory grief, perceived loss, actual loss, and renewal.
D. Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.
42. To prevent food contamination, the Basic precaution to take is
A. Emptying of dustbins
B. Using of handkerchiefs
C. Washing of fruits
D. Washing of hands
43. The Golden Rule of pest control is achieved by
i. Keeping area clean
ii. Killing with pesticides
iii. Removal of food scrubs
iv. Use of bins with fitted lids
A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV`
C. I, III and IV
D. II, III and IV
44. The School Health Nurse has the following responsibilities EXCEPT
A. Assist in the formulation of health policies for the school.
B. Control communicable diseases by immunization.
C. Observe pupils daily whether functioning well.
D. Provide counseling to both pupils and parents.
45. To train a child to acquire good habits, ensure that he/she
A. Brushed the teeth at most once a day.
B. Greets friends on their way to school.
C. Sleeping with other siblings before adults.
D. Washes hands thoroughly before eating.
NMC GENERAL PAPER MAY 2018 PAST QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
46. At what AGE should a newborn child receive BCG and Polio?
A. Birth
B. One months
C. Two weeks
D.Sex weeks
47. At what age should a child start receiving vitamin A supplementation capsules?
A. Birth
B. Eleven
C. Six Month
D. Twelve months
51. Lactational Amenorrhoea Method of family planning is best practiced by
A. Two weeks
B. Four weeks
C. Six weeks
D. Eight weeks
52. School health service involves all EXCEPT
A. Confirmation of current immunization status of pupils
B. Comprehensive assessment and management of care
C. Health promotion to promote healthy behaviors
D. Reduction in maternal mortality
53. Malaria can be eradicated by
A. Keeping surroundings clean to prevent mosquito breeding
B. Sleeping under insecticide treated nets
C. Spraying all adult mosquitoes
D. Use of mosquito netting on doors and windows
54. Hookworm infestation can be prevented by
A. Daily bath
B. Drinking clean water
C. Regular hand washing
D. Wearing of foot wear
55. The route of BCG administration is
A. Intradermally
B. Intra muscularly
C. Intravenously
D. Subcutaneously
56. Diarrhoea in children usually results in death due to excessive fluid loss in the body…..
A. Anorexia
B. Dehydration
C. Hydration
D. Lethargy
57. One advantage of female sterilization is that, it is
A. Highly effective
B. Irreversible
C. Performed by a specialist
D. Slightly risky
58. The IUD prevents pregnancy by
A. Interfering with migration of sperm to fallopian tubes
B. Interfering with transportation of ovum into the uterus
C. Making cervical secretions thicker
D. Suppressing ovulation
59. Household purification of water includes the following EXCEPT
A. Boiling
B. Chemical disinfection
C. Distillation
D.Filtration
60. If a child develops a reaction during blood transfusion the nurse should
A. Call the paediatrician
B. Relieve the symptoms with drugs
C. Slow the flow rate
D. Stop the blood immediately
61. Which of the following medication would the nurse question when ordered for relieve of discomfort in a child with Leukaemia?
A. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
B. Acetaminophen with codeine
C. Ibuprofen
D. Propoxyphene hydrochloride (Darron)
62. The MOST effective way of helping an infant with cleft lip and palate to retain oral feedings is to
A. Bubble the infant at frequent intervals
B. Feed the infant small amount at a time
C. Maintain the infant in a lying position while feeding
D. Put the end of the nipple far to the back of the infant’s tongue
63. Ovulation occurs at the
A. End of proliferative and end menstrual phase
B. End proliferative and onset of secretory
C. Onset of proliferative and end of menstrual phase
D. Onset of regenerative and end of proliferative phase
64. An erectile cavernous structure below the symphysis pubis which is a form of a small glans and two corpora cavernosa in women is known as…?
A. Mons Veneris
B. A penile structure
C. Ssymphysis pubis
D. Clitoris
65. Which of the underlisted is a presumptive sign of pregnancy?
A. Amenorrrhoea
B. Braxton Hicks contractions
C. Uterine growth
D. Osiander’s signs
66. What immediate action would you take when a pregnant woman complains of faintness at the antenatal clinic?
A. Find out from her if she has eaten
B. Inform the doctor immediately about her condition
C. Help her to sit or lie down on her side
D. Tell her to learn against the wall and close the eyes
67. Which of these can be precipitated by pregnancy?
I. Diabetes
II. Eclampsia
III. Pre-eclampsia
IV. Jaundice
A. I and II
B. I, II and III
C. I, III, and IV
D. II, III and IV
68. Aims of abdominal examination in pregnancy include?
I. Foetal abnormality
II. Foetal growth
III. Foetal health
IV. Foetal size
A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV
69. A membrane, situated about 2 cm from the vestibule that demarcates the external from the internal genital organs, and partially closes the vaginal orifice is referred to as…?
A. The hymen
B. The vestibule
C. The mons veneris
D. The clitoris
70. The diet recommended for a mother with pregnancy induced hypertension should include?
A. Copious fluids and low calorie
B. High calorie and fibre
C. High protein, low salt and vitamins
D. Low salt and fibre diet
71. A ten week pregnant woman complains of heart burns. To relieve this discomfort the nurse would advise her to do the following EXCEPT?
A. Avoid bending over
B. Lie on the left side
C. Sleep with more pillows
D. Take small meal at a time
72. A woman with 32 weeks amenorrhoea was brought to the antenatal clinic with a history of finding herself lying in a pool of blood on awakening from sleep. This may be result of
A. Cervical bleeding
B. Placenta abruption
C. Placenta praevia
D. Vulvovaginal varicoscities
73. The first medical contact in a healthy woman with pregnancy offers opportunity for general health screening and…….. EXCEPT?
A. Specific dresses for pregnancy
B. Establish baselines on pregnancy
C. Detect abnormalities of pregnancy
D. Determine gestation date
74. What would be considered the MOST important factor in determining the progress of labour?
A. Cervical dilatation
B. Decent of head
C. Maternal condition
D. Uterine contraction
75. The first stage of true labor starts with?
A. Appearance of “show”
B. Backache and pain in the loin
C. Effacement of the cervix
D. Regular rhythmic uterine contractions
NMC GENERAL PAPER MAY 2018 PAST QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
76. Emesis gravidarium may be prevented by the following EXCEPT…?
A. The pregnant woman should stay indoor
B. Eat before getting out of bed each morning to prevent an empty stomach
C. Bland foods: like dry toast or saltine crackers are good choices
D. Prevent triggers, like strong smells, that make you feel nauseous
77. An extreme form of morning sickness that causes severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy is termed……?
A. Nauseating ailment
B. Hyperemesis gravidarum
C. Morning sickness
D. Pregnancy disorders
78. In managing heartburns in pregnancy, the under-listed may be a remedy EXCEPT…?
A. Brief mother on the baby’s condition
B. Eat slowly and chew every bite thoroughly
C. Eating 2-3hours before bed instead of a few hours before bed
D. Stop foods and beverages that trigger heartburn
79. The organisms responsible for maintenance of vaginal acidity are?
A. Doderleins bacilli
B. E. coli
C. Monilia albicans
D. Streptococci
80. Which pituitary hormone stimulates the ovary to produce oestrogen?
A. Follicle stimulating hormone
B. Luteinizing hormone
C. Oxytocin
D. Prolactin
81. The non-pregnant uterus measures
A. 5cm:7.5cm: 2.5cm
B. 5mls:7.5mls: 2.5cm
C. 5mm:7.5mm: 2.5mm
D. 15kg:7.5kg: 2.5kg
82. The termination of pregnancy prior or before 24 weeks (28 weeks) of gestation or a fetal weight of < 500g is
A. Demolition of foetus
B. Abortion or miscarriage
C. Termination of pregnancy
D. Prematurity of the foetus
83. Which of the following is NOT maternal causes of abortion?
A. Retroverted uterus
B. Developmental defects of the uterus e.g. infantile or bicornuate uterus
C. Uterine fibroids and Cervical incompetence
D. Anal sex
84. The following are types of Miscarriage EXCEPT?
A. Threatened or Inevitable abortion
B. Incomplete/ Complete
C. Silent/delay/missed/Septic abortion
D. Medical abortion
85. Which of the following statement are TRUE about the vulva?
I. The urethral orifice lies 2.5cm below the clitoris
II. The bartholin glands are located in the vestibule
III. The prepuce are folds of skins attached to the under surface of the clitoris
IV. The introitus occupies the posterior two third of the vestibule
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. I and IV
86. This is a term that applied to an abnormal gross development of the trophoblast in which the chorionic villi proliferate and become vascular.
A. Molar pregnancy
B. Hydatidiform mole
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. Uterine pregnancy
87. The various methods of palpation on pregnant abdomen are ……. EXCEPT?
A. Fundal palpation
B. Lateral palpation
C. Pawlik palpation
D. Deep fascia palpation
88. The separation of the placenta from its site of implantation before the delivery of the fetus is known as….?
A. Premature delivery
B. Prematurity of placenta
C. Placental abruption
D. Abnormal placentae
89. Which of following management strategy of third trimester bleeding may NOT be appropriate in stabilizing the mother?
A. A two Large-bore IV cannula
B. Place patient in Trendelenburg position
C. Educate the husband immediately
D. Crossmatch for 4 units of blood
90. Which of the under-listed is TRUE concerning the effects of placenta previa on pregnancy and labor, it may result in……..?
A. Postpartum hemorrhage
B. Fetal malformation
C. High incidence of fetal hypoxia and mortality and or maternal shock and death
D. All of the above
91. …………………is the surgical treatment for cervical incompetence.
A. Shirodkar operation or cervical cerclage
B. Hysterectomy
C. Laparotomy
D. Manual Vacuum aspiration
92. What happens once a diagnosis is made after ultrasound scanning?
A. Present all of the facts survival, morbidity, quality of life
B. Allow the couple time to process the information
C. Provide them with additional resources eg genetic counselor, social workers and literature
D. All the above
93. A fibromuscular tube extending from the vulva to the uterus forming an angle of 60° with the horizontal plane is known as….?
A. Fallopian tube
B. Uterus
C. Vagina
D. Ovary
94. A purse-string stitch of strong non-absorbable suture material is tied around the cervix at the level of the internal os at the 14th to 16th week of pregnancy in order to…?
A. Tighten up the expectant mother
B. Ensure pregnancy goes to term
C. Prevent sexual intercourse
D. Try the pregnancy
95. The anterior and posterior length of the vagina wall is respectively…….?
A. 8-9 cm and 10 -11 cm
B. 8-9 mls and 10 -11 mls
C. 6-9 cm and 10 -15 cm
D. 3-6 cm and 6 -19 cm
96. Fundus of the uterus lies
A. Below the insertion of the fallopian tubes
B. Above the insertion of the fallopian tubes
C. Beside the insertion of the fallopian tubes
D. Above the insertion of the ovaries
97. Which part of the fallopian tubes does fertilization normally takes place?
A. Isthmus
B. Ampulla
C. Infundibulum
D. Tubal ostium
98. This term is used when a patient has had three or more consecutive spontaneous abortions
A. Habitual or recurrent abortion
B. Multiparity
C. Spontaneous abortion
D. Simultaneous abortion
99. Cervical incompetence can be due to
A. Congenital weakness of the cervix
B. Trauma from previous dilatation and curettage
C. Laceration from previous child birth is the commonest cause
D. All the above
100. The function of the prostate gland is to
A. Assist spermatozoa to mature
B. Produce lubricant for the urethra
C. Produce spermatozoa
D. Secrete testosterone
101. In management of placenta previa the nurse midwife must ensure
A. Bed rest and restriction of physical activity for at least 24 hours after admission
B. Avoid constipation, enemas, and vaginal and rectal examinations
C. Continuous observation of bleeding and signs of shock and listening to FHR every 4 hours
D. All the above
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